Why I am Not a Preterist: 3
If the Book of Revelation was to be
fulfilled, as proposed by Preterists, in 70 AD with the destruction of
Jerusalem by Rome, namely Titus the son of Vespasian, why did Jesus only
address churches in Asia Minor [present day Turkey] instead of Jerusalem? It
just doesn't make sense to me. Think about it…If Jerusalem was about to be
destroyed and the whole Book of Revelation was a prophecy about its
destruction, why did Jesus address churches in Asia Minor instead of
prophesying to churches in Jerusalem? Furthermore, if the Book of Revelation is
only about Jerusalem’s fall to Rome, how do the Asia Minor churches fit into
that theme?
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